Which of the following is true

Which of the following is true for immunization strategy?

a.

There is a trade-off between profitability and transaction costs.

b.

The immunization strategy usually requires the portfolio manager to rebalance the portfolio every year

c.

It can involve costly labor cost.

d.

The bank owners and the regulators may have different objectives.

The purpose of calculating and reporting net stable funding ratio is to

a.

Ensure that a DI maintains an adequate level of high-quality liquid assets that can be converted into cash

b.

Ensure that a DI’s long-term assets are funded with adequate amount of stable liabilities

c.

Ensure that a DI has enough capital to absorb potential liquidity risk

d.

Ensure that a DI’s cash inflow exceeds its cash outflow

An FI holds the following Level 1 HQLA: cash ($15), deposits at the Fed ($40), T-bills ($145), qualifying marketable securities ($50). It also holds the following Level 2A HQLA: GNMA bonds ($60), loans to AA- corporations ($540). The FI’s liability items and their run-off factors (in parenthesis) are: stable retail deposits $190 (3%), less stable retail deposits $80 (10%), CDs $100 (0%), stable small business deposits $125 (5%), less stable small business deposits $100 (10%), and nonfinancial corporates $450 (75%). The FI’s expected cash inflow in the next 30 days is $8.5. What is the FI’s liquidity coverage ratio?

a.

97%

b.

116%

c.

88%

d.

86%

As of October 2018, according to Regulation D of the Federal Reserve Act of 1913, a DI with $256 million of net transaction accounts during the computational period is allowed to have much cash reserve deficit per day during the maintenance period without penalty?

a.

11.516

b.

0.682

c.

0.662

d.

1.171

Which of the following is not a reason why the amount of excess reserves skyrocketed starting from 2008?

a.

Fed began paying interest on reserves

b.

Much of the liquidity injections was sitting idle in banks’ reserve accounts

c.

The interest rate paid on reserves before 2008 was lower than market rate

d.

Fed injected large amount of liquidity into FIs in response to the financial crisis

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Which of the following is TRUE

Which of the following is TRUE of supply chain trends of the 21st century?

A. Lengthy product life cycle

B. Emphasis on the economics of scale

C. Diminishing customer power

D. Shift of business focus from coordination to competition

E. Prevalence of disruptive technologies

Which of the following is a right match for “period – planning – main scope & focus”?

A. 1960s – EOQ/ROP – Dependent demand products

B. 1970 – MRP – Independent & dependent demand items

C. 1980 – ERP – End product & customers

D. 1990 – Supply Chain Planning – Product group

E. 2000 – S&OP – All product levels & business partners

Which of the following is generally observed in an assemble-to-order (ATO) system?

A.

efforts to maximize economies of scale throughout the process

B.

focus on supply chain planning

C.

emphasis on resource allocation

D.

push-pull boundary is at the raw material stage

E.

none of the above

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Which of the following is true

Which of the following is true for the above box plot?

 a: 25% of the data are at most 5.

b: There is about the same amount of data from 4 – 5 as there is from 5 – 7.

c: There are no data values of 3.

 d: 50% of the data are 4

On average, 5 students from each high school class get full scholarships to 4-year colleges. Assume that most high school classes have about 500 students. X = the number of students from a high school class that get full scholarships to 4-year school. Which of the following is the distribution of X? A. P(5)

B. B(500,5)

C. Exp(1/5)

D. N(5, (0.01)(0.99)/500)

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Which of the following is true

Which of the following is true of order acknowledgments?

A) You should avoid using the you-viewpoint when writing order acknowledgments.
B) You should use a highly formal style when writing order acknowledgments.
C) Order acknowledgments are typically written using the indirect plan of organizing information.
D) The sole purpose of writing order acknowledgments is to help build goodwill.
E) Order acknowledgments generally tell the people who order goods the status of their orders.
Which of the following concluding sentences is most likely to build goodwill in a routine inquiry message?
A) Your prompt reply to our proposal by August 31 will allow us to start our work on time.
B) We would appreciate an early response.
C) We know that you will be kind enough to help us. Thank you in advance.
D) Hoping to hear from you ASAP.
E) Please return the completed project reports at your convenience.

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Which of the following is TRUE

Which of the following is TRUE about the mean-variance criterion?

Select one:

a. When the degree of risk aversion A > 0, the investor is risk loving.

b. When the degree of risk aversion A = 0, the investor does not care about the expected return of an investment.

c. When the degree of risk aversion A < 0, the investor is risk averse.

d. The certainty equivalent is the utility score of an indifference curve.

e. The indifference curves of a particular mean-variance investor intersect one another at different levels of utility.

.

.

.

2. In a hypothetical financial market, there are two stocks and a risk-free asset. If mean-variance investors (with risk aversions A > 0) are ONLY allowed to own one stock together with the risk-free asset, which of the following statement is TRUE?

Select one:

a. An investor with a higher A, compared to another investor with a lower A, will choose the stock with higher expected return.

b. An investor with a higher A, compared to another investor with a lower A, will choose the stock with lower standard deviation.

c. An investor with a higher A, compared to another investor with a lower A, will choose the stock with higher Sharpe ratio.

d. An investor with a higher A, compared to another investor with a lower A, will choose the stock with lower Sharpe ratio.

e. I cannot find a correct statement.

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Which of the following is true

Which of the following is true of American call options? Select all that apply. Note: nondecreasing means “it increases or stays at the same value” U

If the underlying asset does not pay dividends, then the American call is the same value as a European call with the same strike and expiration.
Put-call parity always applies to American call options.
Premium is nondecreasing as a function of time to expiration
Premium is nondecreasing as a function of strike price.
Put-call duality always applies to American calls.
None of the other responses. Premium is convex as a function of strike price.
An American call must be strictly more valuable than a European call with the same strike price and expiration time.

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Which of the following is true

Which of the following is true?
a. Punitive trade sanctions do not exist
against countries that violate international rules and laws. b. There
is no place for politics in trade.
c. The US Treasury is concerned by
the lack of progress in reducing China’s bilateral trade surplus. d.
Illegal subsidies are a myth.
Establishing a new operation
in a country is known as
a, a red ocean strategy .
b a greenfield
investment
c can acquisition move .
d blue ocean strategy
The impact of a Foreign Direct Investment inflow will
a.
increase competition
b.have an ambiguous affect on
c. decrease
d.
decimate
For trade partners the Product Life Cycle theory
explains trade flows between two developed countries.
True
False

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Which of the following is true

Which of the following is true?

Group of answer choices

(a) If you write a call option and you own the underlying stock, then you are a speculator with a high risk position

(b) If you buy a call option and you do not own the underlying stock, then you are a hedger with a low risk position

(c) If you buy a put option and you own the underlying stock, then you are a speculator with a high risk position

(d) If you sell a put option and you do not own the underlying stock, then you are a hedger with a low risk position

(e) None of the above is true

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Which of the following is TRUE

Which of the following is TRUE?
The conservative approach to the financing of a firm’s current assets uses a relatively high proportion of short-term debt and a relatively low proportion of long-term debt.
With the matching approach to meeting the financing needs of the firm, fixed and permanent current assets are financed with short-term debt.
Net working capital represents the difference between current assets and longterm liabilities.
Under a conservative approach to working capital management, a firm tends to hold a relatively large proportion of its total assets in the form of current assets.
A firm’s cash conversion cycle is equal to its operating cycle plus its payables deferrable period.

The expected return for Asset M is 32%, and it has a standard deviation of 20%. The expected return for Asset N is 18% and it has a standard deviation of 12%. Which of
the following is a CORRECT statement?

Asset N is the riskier investment of the two investments.
Asset M is the riskier investment of the two investments

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Which of the following is TRUE

Which of the following is TRUE?
The security market line can be thought of as expressing relationships between expected required rates of return and beta.
( ) The beta of the market portfolio is 0.
A stock with a beta of zero would be expected to have a rate of return equal to market return.
Assume that capital asset pricing model holds. Then, a security whose expected return falls below the SML (security market line) indicates that the security is undervalued.

Marvell Technology Group Ltd. is in the process of determining its optimal capital
budget for next year. The following investment projects are under consideration
Required Expected Rate
Project Investment of Return
A $8 million 18.0%
B 5 million 16.5%
C 3 million 16.0%
D 6 million 15.5%
E 3 million 14.5%
F 3 million 13.0%
G 5 million 12.5%
The firm’s marginal cost of capital schedule is as follows:
Amount of
Funds Raised Cost
$0- $12 million 13.5%
$12 million-$20 million 14.5%
$20 million – $28 million 15.5%
Over $28 million 16.5%
Determine Marvell’s optimal capital budget (in dollars) for the coming year.

O 22 million O 13 million O 25 million O16 million

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Which of the following is true

Which of the following is true about a durable power of attorney?

a. It is only after principal has died.

b. It remains effective even though the principal is incapacitated.

c. It is not effective until the principal is incapacitated.

d. It is only effective if the agent is a licensed lawyer.

THE FOLLOWING 10 SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS ARE WORTH 5 POINTS EACH

What are the 4 types of Agency Relationships (4 ways an Agency is formed):

Name 4 main Duties the Principal owes to the Agent:

Name 5 main Duties the agent owes to the principal:

Name 5 ways an Agency relationship may be Terminated by an Act of the Parties:

Explain or describe what is the “Coming and going rule”:

Name 5 factors used to determine if a person is an Independent Contractor or Employee:

Name 5 factors the courts consider in determining whether the principal is libel when the Agent engages in a Frolic and a detour and commits a Tort:

List 5 ways an Agency relationship can be Terminated by the Parties:

List 5 ways Agent could violate their Duty of Loyalty:

List 5 ways an Agency relationship can be Terminated by Operation of Law:

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Which of the following is true

Which of the following is true if an agent has no authority to act on behalf of a principal, but the agent still enters into a contract with a third party?

a. The principal is bound only if the principal is a disclosed principal.

b. The principal is bound only if the principal is an unidentified principal.

c. The principal is bound only if the principal is a partially disclosed principal.

d. The principal is not bound unless the principal ratifies the agreement.

When an agent is an employee and commits a tort, during the scope of their job, which of the following is true regarding liability of a principal/employer who controls the employee’s acts?

a. The employer will be liable.

b. The employer is not liable.

c. The employer is liable only if the employee has worked for the employer for thirty days.

d. The employer is liable only if the employee has worked for the employer for six months.

How long does an agent’s apparent authority continue once an agency relationship is terminated?

a. It ends immediately

b. 7 days

c. 30 days

d. Until the principal notifies third parties that the agency relationship has ended.

Which of the following holds the principal-employer liable for any harm caused by the agent-employee during the time that the agent-employee is working for the principal?

a. Vicarious liability

b. Responsible liability

c. Comparative liability

d. Contributory liability

Which of the following refers to an employer’s right, if any, to recover damages from an employee that the employer paid a third party as a result of the employee’s negligence?

a. The right of recompense

b. The entitlement to equity

c. The right of indemnification

d. There is no such right

Which of the following qualifies as termination of an agency by impossibility of performance?

a. the insanity of either the principal or the agent.

b. the bankruptcy of the principal.

c. the loss of a required qualification.

d. the conviction of either the principal or the agent.

Which of the following is true of a fully disclosed agency?

a. The third party does not know the identity of the principal.

b. The third party knows the name of the principal, but all transactions are done with the agent.

c. The contract is between the principal, agent, and the third party.

d. The principal is liable on the contract with a third party.

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