osteoporosis

1. Which of the following is a disorder that primarily involves a significant disturbance in a person’s emotional state?

a. osteoporosis

b. autism

c. spasticity

d. depressive and bipolar disorder

2. Which of the following is a symptom of major depressive disorder?

a. elated mood most of the day

b. increased interest in daily activities

c. insomnia or hypersomnia

d. reduced production of neurotransmitters

3. During his tenure as a prosecutor, Larson had once helped to book an innocent man in a murder trial. Following this incident he lost his appetite leading to weight loss and developed insomnia. Of late he has also become dysphoric and has developed suicidal tendencies. Identify the disorder from which Larson is suffering.

a. major depressive disorder

b. autism

c. bipolar disorder

d. cyclothymic disorder

4. Mary has been in a continual state of dysfunction that has kept her from feeling truly happy or well-adjusted. However, she has never had a full-blown depressive episode. Mary is most likely suffering from _____ disorder.

a. cyclothymic

b. dysthymic

c. bipolar

d. major depressive

5. The overwhelming feeling of sadness a depressed person feels is referred to as

a. euphoria.

b. elation.

c. dysphoria.

d. ecstasy.

6. Which of the following is a depressive disorder involving chronic depression of less intensity than a major depressive disorder?

a. autism

b. dysthymic disorder

c. bipolar disorder

d. cyclothymic disorder

7. Bipolar disorder was formerly referred to as

a. cyclothymic disorder.

b. manic depression.

c. euphoric-dysphoric disorder.

d. affective psychosis.

8. Jules has been suffering from a form of mood disorder. She experiences insomnia and feels low on energy at times and then at other times she seems to be very energetic and experiences a state of ecstasy. Identify the mood disorder affecting Jules.

a. major depressive disorder

b. bipolar disorder

c. dysthymic disorder

d. major depressive episode

9. In order to be diagnosed with

a. Bipolar II disorder one has to undergo one or more major depressive episodes.

b. Bipolar I disorder the period of elated mood should be extreme.

c. Bipolar II disorder one has to have at least one manic episode.

d. Bipolar I disorder the period of depression should not be extreme.

10. Clinicians are most likely to diagnose people who have four or more episodes of major depression, mania, hypomania, or mixed symptoms with

a. rapid-cycling form of bipolar disorder.

b. dysthymic disorder.

c. major depressive disorder.

d. hypothyroidism

11. Which of the following is a less severe form of bipolar disorder?

a. cyclothymic disorder

b. rapid cycling

c. dysthymic disorder

d. major depressive disorder

12. Based on numerous studies, comparing identical or monozygotic twins with fraternal or dizygotic twins, researcher’s concluded that genetic influences on major depressive disorder are in the range of

a. 6 to 12 percent.

b. 30 to 40 percent.

c. 50 to 66 percent.

d. 70 to 81 percent.

13. Which of the following disorders exhibits the strongest pattern of genetic inheritance?

a. major depressive disorder

b. dysthymic disorder

c. bipolar disorder

dParkinson’s disease

14. Which of the following is an effect of using SSRIs?

a. It increases the level of serotonin in the body.

b. It reduces the level of norepinephrine in the body.

c. It cures sexual dysfunction.

d. It keeps diabetes in check.

15. It takes approximately _____ weeks for antidepressant medications to have an effect on a patient’s mood.

a. 5 to 8

b. 30 to 40

c. 10 to 20

d. 2 to 6

16. The traditional treatment for bipolar disorder is

a. cortisol.

b. hydrocortisone.

c. collagen.

d. lithium carbonate.

17. _____ are the daily variations that regulate biological patterns such as sleep-wake cycles.

a. Circadian rhythms

b. Neuromodulations

c. Hypomanic episodes

d. Manic episodes

18. Early psychoanalytic theories of mood disorders proposed that

a. people with depressive disorders had suffered a loss early in their lives that a ffected them at a deep, intrapsychic level.

b. people are born with a predisposition that places them at risk for developing a psychological disorder if exposed to certain extremely stressful life experiences.

c. people with high levels of norepinephrine are at a high risk of developing mood disorders.

d. people with high levels of serotonin are at a high risk of developing mood disorders.

19. The increase in the frequency of behaviors that results because these actions produce pleasure is what Lewinsohn calls

a. cognitive restructuring.

b. response contingent positive reinforcement.

c. non-contingent continuous reinforcement.

d. vicarious reinforcement.

20. Leon is undergoing treatment for his depression. In the course of his treatment, his therapist encourages him to take up new ventures and tries to build up his confidence through positive reinforcement. This therapeutic technique is most likely based on the

a. cognitive perspective.

b. psychodynamic perspective.

c. biological perspective.

d. behavioral perspective.

21. “I got a 96% on this exam but the four I missed were easy. I must be stupid.” This statement shows that the speaker is affected by the cognitive distortion referred to by Beck as

a. selective abstraction.

b. dichotomous thinking.

c. catastrophizing.

d. overgeneralization.

22. Which of the following is true of the interpersonal therapy?

a. Compared to the other therapies, the interpersonal therapy proves to be most efficient for clients with personality disorders.

b. Interpersonal therapyinvolves applying electrical shock to the head of a person suffering from psychological disorders for the purpose of inducing therapeutically beneficial seizures.

c. Interpersonal therapy uses a combination of techniques, such as encouraging self-exploration, providing support, and providing feedback on the client’s ineffective social skills.

d. The first phase of interpersonal therapy involves formulating a treatment plan that focuses on the primary problem faced by the client.

23. The disorders which are characterized by intense, incapacitating fear and apprehension are called

a. somatoform disorders.

b. dissociative disorders.

c. anxiety disorders.

d. personality disorders.

24. Which disorder is characterized by difficulty in leaving one’s caregivers?

a. overanxiousdisorder

b. avoidantdisorder

c. separation anxiety disorder

d. panic disorder

25. _____ is a disorder originating in childhood in which an individual consciously refuses to talk.

a. Autism spectrum disorder

b. Expressive language disorder

c. Selective mutism

d. Childhood schizophrenia

26. If a person’s fear response to a specific situation or object is disproportionate to the actual threat posed by the stimulus, the individual is said to have a (n)

a. phobia.

b. compulsion.

c. delusion.

d. aversion.

27. Maisie has an extreme fear of heights. When she registers for classes at college, she makes a point of signing up for classes that are held on the first floor of the buildings. Maisie might be diagnosed as having

a. agoraphobia.

b. social anxiety disorder.

c. obsessive-compulsive disorder.

d. specific phobia.

28. The most effective antianxiety medications are called

a. neuroleptics.

b. amphetamines.

c. benzodiazepines.

d. narcotics.

29. Which theoretical perspective views the causes of phobias to be based on the individual’s faulty inferences and overgeneralizations?

a. cognitive-behavioral

b. humanistic

c. existential

d. psychoanalytic

30. The behavioral approach to treating phobias, which involves gradually exposing the client to the feared stimulus while the client practices relaxation exercises, is called

a. systematic desensitization.

b. flooding.

c. aversive conditioning.

d. relaxation training.

31. The anxiety of a person suffering from social anxiety disorder is essentially centered on

a. the fear of falling unconscious in a public place.

b. the desire to avoid humiliation in a gathering.

c. the feeling of claustrophobia when standing in a crowd.

d. the feeling of getting isolated and being lost in a mob.

32. Derek suddenly felt his hands and legs go numb and started shaking involuntarily while preparing for his high school final semester. The acuteness of the problem forced his parents to consult a clinician. When asked, the clinician was told that it was the first time Derek had suffered from any of these symptoms. Derek is most likely experiencing

a. a panic attack.

b. panic disorder.

c. post-traumatic stress disorder.

d. dissociative disorder.

33. Kaila is so intimidated by the possibility of having a panic attack that she stays home the majority of the time. If she does go out, she insists that one of her friends accompanies her in case she has a panic attack. In addition to having panic disorder, Kaila might also be described as being

a. hydrophobic.

b. agoraphobic.

c. claustrophobic.

d. arachnophobic.

34. Which disorder is characterized by the client’s dissatisfaction and delusional preoccupation with the idea that some part of his or her body is ugly or defective?

a. Briquet’s syndrome

b. psychalgia

c. bodydysmorphic disorder

d. disorder with uncontrolled body movements

35. Trichotillomania is a disorder involving the persistent urge to

a. pull out one’s own hair.

b. bite one’s own nails.

c. binge and then purge.

d. steal.

36. Mary washes her hands several times a day and still feels that her hands are unclean despite all the washing. This habit has caused Mary to be late on several occasions. Her symptoms are suggestive of

a. obsessive-compulsive disorder.

b. acute stress disorder.

c. specific phobia.

d. general anxiety disorder.

37. Which of the following is a cognitive-behavioral method designed to reduce obsessive thinking?

a. dream analysis

b. thought stopping

c. response blocking

d. negative reinforcement

38. In which disorder does a child have a severe disturbance in his or her ability to relate to others?

a. stereotypic movement disorder

b. reactive attachment disorder

c. separation anxiety disorder

d. overanxious disorder

39. Acute stress disorder is diagnosed _____; post-traumatic stress disorder is diagnosed _____.

a. soon after a traumatic event; if symptoms persist more than a month

b. if symptoms persist more than a month; soon after a traumatic event

c. in situations of civilian trauma only; in situations of military or combat trauma only

d. in situations where the individual is unable to recover from the anxiety associated with a traumatic life event; when there is no social isolation of the client.

40. Following a trauma, an individual is less vulnerable to develop PTSD if he or she

a. feels supported and understood.

b. feels angry or irritated.

c. isolates him/herself.

d. entertains thoughts of revenge.

41. Individuals with PTSD experience alterations in a particular portion of the brain which is responsible for

a. learning movements.

b. processing pain sensations.

c. performing autonomic functions.

d. consolidating memory.

42. The only FDI-approved antidepressants to treat people with PTSD are

a. benzodiazepines.

b. MAOIs.

c. respiridone.

d. SSRIs.

43. Carlos used to enjoy bowling, but since he returned from active duty, the sound of the ball hitting the pins and the sound of the pins falling, is bringing back vivid memories of combat. Carlos is experiencing

a. flashbacks.

b. delusions.

c. obsessions.

d. compulsions.

44. Regarding PTSD, positive psychology states that

a. acute stress disorder is a subcategory of PTSD.

b. people suffering from generalized anxiety disorder tend to acquire PTSD syndromes very quickly.

c. pharmacotherapy by the use of antidepressant is the only way to generate positive results.

d. trauma potentially allows clients to find positive interpretations of their experiences.

45. The Eye Movement Desensitization Reprocessing (EMDR) is a technique used by a clinician to treat clients suffering from

a. post-traumatic stress disorders.

b. generalized anxiety disorders.

c. social anxiety disorders.

d. agoraphobias.

Place this order or similar order and get an amazing discount. USE Discount code “GET20” for 20% discount