Assessment Techniques

PSY 527

Assessment Techniques

Text: Mastering Modern Psychological Testing: Theory and Methods

First Edition, 2012

ISBN 13: 978-0-205-48350-1

Author(s): Cecil R. Reynolds and Ronald B. Livingston

Publisher: Pearson

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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

l. Performance on pure tests are assessed based on time, while pure _ tests are assessed based on d iffic u Ity.

a. speed; power

b. power; speed

c. achievement; maximum performance

d. maximum performance; achievement

2. Which scores would be interpreted appropriately for measuring a student’s mastery of a specific domain of knowledge?

a. Norm-referenced scores

b. Criterion-referenced scores

c. Standardized-referenced scores

d. Projective-referenced scores

3. A classroom teacher gives her students a final exam that is the basis for 50 of their final grade in the course. This is an example of which type of evaluation?

a. Projective eval uation

b. Summative evaluation

c. Formative evaluation

d. Feedback evaluation

4. The majority of assessment information collected by most teachers comes from:

a. professionally developed tests.

b. state-wide tests.

c. performance tests.

d. teacher made tests.

5. Susan has been evaluated and determined to be learning disabled. This is an example of:

a. assignment.

b. classification.

c. placement

d. selection.

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6. The Scholastic Achievement Test (SAT) is atn):

a. pure speed test.

b. maximum performance test.

c. typical response test.

d. projective test.

7. If the range of one or both variables is restricted, the resulting correlation coefficient will likely:

a. be decreased.

b. be increased.

c. remain the same.

d. either increase or decrease depending on the calculations.

8.

Correlation imply causation.

a. does

b. does not

c. might, depending on the scale of measurement

d. none of the above

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9. The correlation between two variables is 0.70. Using the concept of the coefficient of determination, the proportion of variance that is determined or predictable from

the relationship between the two measures is:

a.

14.

b.

30.

c.

49.

d.

70.

10. A special mathematical procedure for predicting scores on one variable (criterion or Y) given a score on another (predictor or X) is:

a. correlational analysis.

b. linear regression.

c. regression analysis.

d. prediction constant.

11. Why would a psychologist feel that the variance might be difficult to interpret?

a. It is a nonlinear transformation.

b. It is an area transformation.

c. It may be a negative number.

d. It uses squared raw score units.

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12. In a normal distribution, what percentage of scores will fall between one standard deviation below the mean and one standard deviation above the mean?

a. 16

b. 34

c. 68

d. 84

13. The “Flynn Effect” refers to:

a. decreases in IQ observed during the 20th century.

b. decreases in SAT scores observed during the 20th century.

c. increases in SAT scores observed during the 20th century.

d. increases in IQ observed during the 20th century.

14.

Wechsler subtest scaled scores have a mean of

a. 0; 1

b. 10; 3

c. 50; 10

d. 500; 100

and a standard deviation of

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15. The norms for a standardized intelligence test describe the:

a. ideal level of performance.

b. minimum acceptable level of performance.

c. performance of a specified group.

d. performance of a successful group.

16. A percentile rank of __ indicates performance at the median of the reference group.

a. 49

b. 49.5

c. 50

d. 51

17. interpretations can be applied to a wider variety of tests than _

interpretations.

a. Criterion-referenced; norm-referenced

b. Norm-referenced; criterion-referenced

c. Both are about equal in their applications.

d. None of the above

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18. CEEB (SAT/GRE) scores have a mean of __ and a standard deviation of __ .

a. 0; 1

b. 50; 10

c. 100; 15

d. 500; 100

19. Sally’s obtained score on a statistics exam is 75. The SEM is 2. With what confidence interval would we capture her true score 68 of the time?

a. 71 to 79

b. 73 to 77

c. 69t081

d. 70 to 80

20. The average of all possible split-half coefficients is known as:

a. Coefficient alpha.

b. correlation coefficient.

c. alternate form reliability.

d. Spearman-Brown coefficient.

21. The Spearman-Brown formula is used to:

a. correct a split-half reliability coefficient.

b. estimate construct reliability.

c. perform a curvilinear transformation of the scores.

d. perform a linear transformation of the scores.

22. is a result of transient events in the test taker (fatigue, illness, etc.) and the

testing environment (temperature, noise level, etc.),

a. Administration error

b. Content sampling error

c. Temporal instability

d. Systematic measurement error

23. The reliability index reflects the correlation between:

a. true scores and observed scores.

b. true scores and measurement error.

c. observed scores and measurement error.

d. true scores and true scores.

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24. What happens to the size of confidence intervals as reliability coefficients increase?

a. They decrease.

b. They increase.

c. They remain the same.

d. It is indeterminate: it depends on the construct being measured.

25. is a useful index when comparing the reliability of the scores produced by

different tests, but when the focus is on interpreting the test scores of individuals, the _____ is more practical.

a. Rei iabi I ity Coefficient; Standard Error of Measurement

b. Standard Error of Measurement; Rei iabi I ity Coefficient

c. Standard Error of Esti mate; Coefficient AI pha

d. Standard Error of Estimate; Reliability Coefficient

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Writing Assignment for Unit One

• Include your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number on each page of your writing assignment (this is for your protection in case your materials become separated).

• Begin each writing assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by the actual question itself (in bold type).

• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e. an introduction, middle paragraphs and conclusion),

• Responses must be submitted as a MS Word Document only, typed double-spaced, using a

standard font (i.e. Times New Roman) and 12 point type size,

Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to writing assignments. However, students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit writing assignments that fall in the following ranges:

Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages, Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages, Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.

Plagiarism

All work must be free of any form of plagiarism, Put written answers into your own words. Do not simply cut and paste your answers from the Internet and do not copy your answers from the textbook, Be sure to refer to the course syllabus for more details on plagiarism and proper citation styles,

Please answer ONE of the following:

1. Generate examples to illustrate positive and negative correlations, Exam ine a theoretical situation where two variables are correlated, but there is clearly no causation, Evaluate the example provided in Special Interest Topic 2,6: Caution – Drawing Conclusions of Causality.

2. Evaluate why reliability is important in psychological assessment. Next, differentiate between various levels of reliability that may be recommended for different situations. What level of reliability might be acceptable for a brief screening test used to screen research subjects for depression or anxiety? For an IQ test used to help diagnose mental retardation? For a high- stakes test that must be passed in order to graduate from high school? Examine the SAT or ACT college admission tests in reference to rei iabi lity.

3. Analyze the nature of the Flynn Effect and its various implications, What factors do you believe are driving the increase in IQ? How would you explain the fact that over much of the past century there has been a decrease in SAT scores, in light of the increase in IQ? What do you think the social implications of the Flynn Effect might be?

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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1.

There exists a relatively sophisticated validation technique referred to as that

combines convergent and divergent strategies.

a. analysis of variance

b. factor analysis

c. linear regression

d. multitrait-multimethod matrix

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2. Which factor analytic method analyzes only shared variance while excluding unique and error variance?

a. Component Factor Analysis

b. Confirmatory Factor Analysis

c. Principal Component Analysis

d. Principal Factor Analysis

3. After examinees complete a math reasoning test, they are interviewed by researchers on what processes and strategies they engaged in when completing the test. Which

type of validity evidence are these researchers collecting?

a. Validity evidence based on consequences of testing.

b. Validity evidence based on test content.

c. Validity evidence based on relations to other variables.

d. Validity evidence based on response processes.

4. Which type of validity evidence can best be strengthened by the use of a table of specifications?

a. Validity evidence based on consequences of testing.

b. Val id ity evidence based on test content.

c. Validity evidence based on relations to other variables.

d. Validity evidence based on response processes.

5. is the most common approach to establishing the validity of academic

achievement tests.

a. Validity evidence based on consequences of testing.

b. Validity evidence based on test content.

c. Validity evidence based on relations to other variables.

d. Validity evidence based on response processes.

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6. Test-criterion validity evidence is an example of:

a. validity evidence based on consequences of testing.

b. validity evidence based on test content.

c. validity evidence based on relations to other variables.

d. validity evidence based on response processes.

7. What percentage of the Examination for Professional Practice on Psychology covers the Biological Basis of Behavior content area?

a. 5

b. 11

c. 21

d. 32

8. Performance on the EPPP is reported in which score format?

a. Raw scores

b. Scaled scores

c. T scores

d. Z scores

9. What is Step 2 of the United States Medical Licensing Examination?

a. Clinical knowledge and clinical skills

b. Computer based multiple-choice assessment

c. Computer based multiple-choice assessment with computer based case simulation

d. Patient simulations

10. An important test-taking skill to teach students is:

a. “Do not answer questions you are not sure of.”

b. “Never return to a question and change your answer.”

c. “Get through the test as quickly as possible.”

d. “Make informed guesses by process of elimination.”

11. The National Assessment of Educational Progress provides a comprehensive assessment of students’ achievement at certain critical periods in their academic experience. These grade levels are:

a. 2nd, 6th, and 10th.

b. 4th, 8th, and 12th.

c. 5th, 7th, and 11th.

d. 6th, 8th, 12th.

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12. What law mandates that any institution that receives federal funds must ensure that individuals with disabilities have equal access to all programs and services provided by the institution?

a. No Child Left Behind Act 2001

b. Section 504 of the Rehabi I itation Act of 1973

c. The Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004

d. The Education of All Handicapped Children Act of 1975

13. Deductive and inductive logic are considered the hallmarks of which broad ability domain under CHC theory?

a. Comprehension-knowledge

b. Fluid reasoning

c. Processing ability

d. Static reasoning

14. The Reynolds Intellectual Assessment Scales is normed for individuals between the ages

of and

a. 2; 85

b. 3; 94

c. 6; 16

d. 16; 89

15. Regarding research on intelligence, Cattell is best known for:

a. identifying seven Primary Mental Abilities.

b. P-A-S-S Theory

c. C-H-C Theory

d. Two-Factor Theory, which hypothesizes the existence of crystallized and fluid i ntell igence

16. Which intelligence theory has served as the foundation for most modern IQ tests?

a. CHC Theory

b. PASS Theory

c. Spearman’s two-factor model

d. Wechsler’s theory of general and fluid intelligence

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17. Which intelligence test is co-normed with a supplementary memory scale?

a. Reynolds Intellectual Assessment Scales

b. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, 5th edition

c. Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence, 3rd edition

d. Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children, 4th edition

18. The Reynolds Intellectual Assessment Scales produce which of the following factor scores?

a. Fluid reasoning

b. Short-term memory

c. Verbal Intelligence Index

d. Verbal IQ

19. The most widely used projective drawing technique is the:

a. Bicycle Drawing Task

b. Draw-A-Person test

c. House-Tree-Person

d. Kinetic Family Drawing

20. Who developed a comprehensive system that integrated the most empirically supported features of the existing systems for scoring the Rorschach Inkblot test?

a. Binet

b. Exner

c. Freud

d. Woodworth

21. Which collaboration between a client and a psychologist begins with the client identifying the questions they need answered in their life to better deal with their current struggles, then attempts to answer those questions using psychological tests?

a. Ipsative Assessment

b. Oblique Assessment

c. Practical Assessment

d. Therapeutic Assessment

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22.

The

test.

a.

b.

c.

d.

____ is an example of a theoretically based contemporary objective personality

MMPI-2

Rorschach Inkblot Test MMPI-2-RF

MCMI-III

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23. Which personality test contains scales such as neuroticism and agreeableness?

a. MCMI-III

b. Thematic Apperception Test

c. MMPI-2

d. NEO Personality Inventory

24. Which personality test examines dichotomies, such as Thinking – Feeling, that are thought to reflect personal preferences?

a. Rorschach Ink Blot Test

b. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

c. MMPI-2

d. Neo Personality Inventory

25. There is research supporting the psychometric properties of projective

personality tests. These instruments remain among clinicians.

a. considerable; unpopular

b. considerable; popular

c. little; unpopular

d. little; popu lar

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Writing Assignment for Unit Two

• Include your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number on each page of your writing assignment (this is for your protection in case your materials become separated).

• Begin each writing assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by the actual question itself (in bold type).

• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e., an introduction, middle paragraphs and conclusion).

• Responses must be submitted as a MS Word Document only, typed double-spaced, using a standard font (i.e. Times New Roman) and 12 point type size.

Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to writing assignments. However, students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit writing assignments that fall in the following ranges:

Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages. Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages. Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.

Plagiarism

All work must be free of any form of plagiarism. Put written answers into your own words. Do not simply cut and paste your answers from the Internet and do not copy your answers from the textbook. Be sure to refer to the course syllabus for more details on plagiarism and proper citation styles.

Please answer ONE of the following:

1. I ntelligence and 10 tests are often the focus of controversy and emotional debate. After readi ng Special Interest Topics 9.1,9.2, examine some of the issues raised.

2. In earlier chapters of the text we focused primarily on maximum performance tests and their development. Compare and contrast maximum performance and typical response tests. Provide examples of tasks/items and classify them as primarily measuring maximum performance or typical responses.

3. Evaluate the phenomenon of response sets and dissimulation. Present a situation in which

a person might want to present themselves in an overly positive manner (i .e., fake good). Then examine a hypothetical situation in which someone might want to present themselves (or someone else) in an overly negative manner (i.e., fake bad). Are there situations where you have witnessed either of these occurrences? What are some of the overall reasons people might intentionally misrepresent themselves? What psychometric strategies are available for detecting this kind of misrepresentation?

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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1. The Vineland – II Expanded Interview Form is recommended for use with which population?

a. Low functioning individuals

b. High functioning individuals

c. Secondary school students

d. All of the above

2. Dr. Hancock plans to administer the CASE to an 82 year old female that he suspects may have i ntell igence and neuropsychological deficits. Wh ich screeni ng scale should he look at to determine if further neuropsychological testing is warranted?

a. Adaptive scale

b. Cognitive Competency scale

c. Daily Functioning scale

d. Intelligence scale

3.

The screening version of the CASE does not include the scale.

a. Infrequency

b. Social Desirability

c. Validity scale

d. None of the above

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4. An advantage of direct observation over behavior rating scales is that direct observation provides:

a. true nominal scale data.

b. true ordinal scale data.

c. true interval scale data.

d. true ratio scale data.

5. A crucial component of a direct observation system that contributes to good inter-rater reliability is:

a. momentary time sampling.

b. multiple observers.

c. specific operational definitions of behavior.

d. well defined antecedents and consequences.

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6. Continuous performance tests are highly sensitive to symptoms associated with abnormal ities of the:

a. auditory cortex.

b. executive control system.

c. primary motor cortex.

d. visual cortex.

7. When validating selection methods and tools, Hoffman, et al (1991) found that ____ showed correlations around zero.

a. self-appraisals

b. supervisor rankings

c. supervisor ratings

d. work samples

8. A rater completes a Likert-type scale on an employee’s performance. This type of rating system is:

a. absol ute.

b. highly biased.

c. criterion based.

d. relative.

9. Which set of guidelines was developed by the Society of Industrial and Organizational Psychology?

a. Guidelines for the Validation of Selection Procedures

b. Principles for the Validation and Use of Personnel Selection Procedures, 4th edition

c. Strong I nterest I nventory, Revised Ed ition

d. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures

10. Which prominent female psychologist, who worked for Aetna Life Insurance Company, was one of the first to note the potential advantages of using a battery of tests, rather than a single test?

a. Dr. Elsie Oschrin Bregman

b. Dr. Lillian Moller Gilbreth

c. Dr. Marion A. Bills

d. Dr. Mary H.S. Hayes

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11. Which of the Big 5 Personality Dimensions refers to being imaginative, cultured, and artistically sensitive?

a. Agreeableness

b. Conscientiousness

c. Extraversion

d. Openness to Experience

12. Which personnel selection method is most likely to result in differences by race or gender?

a. Assessment Centers

b. Cognitive Ability Tests

c. Interviews

d. Work Sample Tests

13. On the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery, the hypothesized localization of the Finger Tapping and Grip Strength tests is the:

a. frontal lobes.

b. occipital lobes.

c. parietal lobes.

d. temporal lobes.

14. The Auditory Perception Test on the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery is used to assess sensory-perceptual skills that are hypothesized to be located in the:

a. frontal lobe.

b. occipital lobe.

C. parietal lobe.

d. temporal lobe.

15. A neuropsychological instrument used to assess attention is:

a. the Boston Naming Test – 2.

b. Conner’s Continuous Performance Test – III.

c. the Stroop Test.

d. the Tower of London.

16. Which of the following dementi as produces significant motor disturbance?

a. Alzheimer’s Disease

b. Frontal lobe dementia

c. Parkinson’s dementia

d. Vascular dementia

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17.

______ is/are the most common cause of brain injury due to toxins.

a. b. c. d.

Alcohol

Heavy metals Metham phetam i ne Pesticides

18. An existing neuropsychological test that is quite resistant to brain damage and can serve as a measure of effort is:

a. digit span backward.

b. digit span forward.

c. phonemic fluency.

d. semantic fluency.

19. Which Supreme Court case most recently outl ined the criteria of adm issi bi I ity of scientific evidence?

a. Atkins v. United States

b. Atkins v. Virginia

c. Daubert v. Merrill Dow

d. Plessy v. Texas

20.

In clinical settings are primary, whereas forensic evaluations more commonly

address _

a. broad issues; narrowly defined issues or events

b. narrow issues; broad issues or events

c. narrow issues; only legal issues

d. subjective personality tests; objective personality tests

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21. In what context is the threat of conscious and intentional distortion greatest?

a. Clinical

b. Counseling

c. Forensic

d. School

22. What has been foundto be predictive of high error rates in clinical diagnoses?

a. Lack of neuroimaging studies conducted

b. A clinician with extremely high levels of confidence

c. A clinician new to the field

d. The administration of neuropsychological tests

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23.

Studies on the Flynn Effect have observed an increase of points per year in average

IQs.

a. 0.2

b. 0.3

c. 0.5

d. 0.8

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24. Who is credited with discovering that the presence of an audience enhances your performance if you are very familiar with a task but decreases your performance if you have limited or no talent for the task?

a. Norman Tri plett

b. Rensis Likert

c. Robert Zajonc

d. Wilhelm Wundt

25. An individual with a mild traumatic brain injury who had initial, temporary deficits now reports severe memory loss and an inability to return to work. This is technically referred to as:

a. faking.

b. malingering.

c. perjury.

d. feigning.

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Writing Assignment for Unit Three

• Include your name, student number, course number, course title and unit number on each page of your writing assignment (this is for your protection in case your materials become separated).

• Begin each writing assignment by identifying the question number you are answering followed by the actual question itself (in bold type).

• Use a standard essay format for responses to all questions (i.e., an introduction, middle paragraphs and conclusion).

• Responses must be submitted as a MS Word Document only, typed double-spaced, using a

standard font (i.e. Times New Roman) and 12 point type size.

Word count is NOT one of the criteria that is used in assigning points to writing assignments. However, students who are successful in earning the maximum number of points tend to submit writing assignments that fall in the following ranges:

Undergraduate courses: 350 – 500 words or 1 – 2 pages. Graduate courses: 500 – 750 words or 2 – 3 pages. Doctoral courses: 750 – 1000 words or 4 – 5 pages.

Plagiarism

All work must be free of any form of plagiarism. Put written answers into your own words. Do not simply cut and paste your answers from the Internet and do not copy your answers from the textbook. Be sure to refer to the course syllabus for more detai Is on plagiarism and proper citation styles.

Please answer ONEof the following:

1. Distinguish between the various ways assessments are used in vocational/employment settings.

How do psychologists use the information provided by these assessments in making employment decisions? III ustrate with hypothetical examples.

2. Generate a hypothetical example of an individual who is referred for neuropsychological testing, assuming the individual has some type of brain injury (see Special Interest Topic 13.1). Examine the testing process from referral through the process of actual testing. Use your best judgment to determine what elements would be included in this type of assessment.

3. Analyze the role of mental retardation or cognitive impairments in criminal proceedings. How is it evaluated and how might it impact court proceedings and sentencing? How does the Flynn Effect apply to this issue?

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Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1. Which court case resulted in the use of IQ tests with Black children being prohibited in California public schools?

a. Diana v. State Board of Education

b. Larry P. v. Riles

c. Marshall v. Georgia

d. PASE v. Hannon

2. What is one significant benefit of having minority judges review the items?

a. They are particularly good at identifying biased items.

b. Then can identify items that will likely be misunderstood.

c. They can identify items that are offensive.

d. They can identify examiner biases.

3. What is the result if the same slope but different intercepts are found for different ethnic groups in a prediction bias study?

a. Homogeneity of regression

b. Parallel regression lines that produce constant bias in prediction

c. Nonparallel regression lines

d. Confluent regression lines

4. Test applications that result in valid predictions for one group, but invalid predictions in another group are referred to as:

a. b. c. d.

having cultural validity.

having differential predictive validity. measuri ng homogeneous constructs. homogeneity of regression.

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5.

______ is present when a test makes more valid predictions for one group than for

another.

a. Differential reliability

b. Differential validity

c. Heterogeneous rei iabi I ity

d. Heterogeneous validity

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6. When using Item Response Theory to identify biased items, one typically compares the ___ of two different groups yielding an index of Differential Item Function.

a. means

b. standard deviations

c. item characteristic curves

d. factor structures

7. Fuchs (2002) notes that one of the prominent strategies for examining the validity of

assessment accommodations is to look for of the accommodation between

examinees with and without disabilities.

a. common effects

b. differential effects

c. oblique effects

d. orthogonal effects

8. What is one guideline provided by Dr. Phillips regarding test accommodations?

a. Accommodations must be the same for all students with disabilities.

b. Any accommodation requested must be granted.

c. 3-months is considered adequate notice in most assessment programs.

d. Accommodations should be individualized.

9. Which accommodation is NOT allowed by the Texas Education Agency?

a. Calculators during certain tests

b. Reading aloud to the student the reading portion of the test

c. Oral administration of the math test

d. Signing the prompt on the writing test

10. The Individuals with Disabilities Education Act requires that public schools provide students with d isabi I ities atn).

a. Cost Effective Public Education.

b. Equal Opportunity Public Education.

c. Free Appropriate Public Education.

d. Limited Cost Public Education.

11. What is the main limitation of using an alternate assessment in providing an assessment accommodation?

a. It is difficult to find satisfactory alternate assessments.

b. Generalizing results is not possible with alternate assessments.

c. Only students with severe disabilities can use alternate assessments.

d. Results tend to be less psychometrically sound.

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12. Courts have ruled that test administrators are not required to grant accommodations:

a. on high-stakes assessments.

b. to students with mild disabilities.

c. that involve modifications of setting.

d. that invalidate the interpretation of scores.

13. According to research by Grove and Meehl (1996), which approach to interpreting assessment data is more accurate?

a. Actuarial

b. Clinical

c. Impression istic

d. Qual itative

14. Grove and Meehl postulated several reasons clinicians have not adopted statistical approaches for interpreting assessment information. Which reason did the authors state was the biggest culprit?

a. Fear of being replaced by a computer

b. Attachment to specific psychological theories

c. An education that does not instill a preference for scientific inquiry

d. Belief that actuarial approaches dehumanize clients

15. It is a best practice to select assessments with normative data that are representative of

the population.

a. general

b. minority

 

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